At John 1:1 'the word' could this also mean 'promise' or 'promised one' as per modern Greek?

This might then say 'In the beginning was the promise/promised one and the promised one was towards/with God and the promise/ promised one was a god/divine/godly.' Our creator did make a promise to us via Abraham - the promise of the seed coming through his line. Also the promised one, Jesus was with God at the beginning and maybe there is meant to be 2 meanings in the original Greek scriptures - i.e. the promise and the promised one both originating with God? Is there a linguistic reason why I could be wrong - please state where you got your knowledge from in your answer. Most grateful.