Linguistic jurisdiction?

It seems a bit ridiculous, but i guess maybe i had found a production law on English(Latin) words in their original yielding era. For example, that "oi" assembly in xoil series: boil/coil/moil/soil/toil... which looks like indicating "torn" meaning, letter m in mouth/mountain/mount... may express a heap meaning, etc. And I've developed a complete theory of these composing principles. The problem i am now confronted with is who and where can i refer to to confirm my deduction. I am of quite little knowledge of American academic and institute system, will the spectator of this question bill kindly inform me some unions that may be interest and willing to verify my speculations?